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1 What is Virus? How Virus can be classified
2 What is the problem with relational data base and what solution you can suggest for it?
3 Briefly describe the guide lines for lay out presentation
4 What is the dilemma of computing?
5 What is the nested if-else structure?
6 Briefly describe holographic storage
7 The event handler attribute consists of three parts and guide about each them
8 What is intelligent system?
9 What is spreadsheet? List any two that his can do
10 Name any software which can be used to make a presentation
11 What is bandwidth?
2 What is the problem with relational data base and what solution you can suggest for it?
3 Briefly describe the guide lines for lay out presentation
4 What is the dilemma of computing?
5 What is the nested if-else structure?
6 Briefly describe holographic storage
7 The event handler attribute consists of three parts and guide about each them
8 What is intelligent system?
9 What is spreadsheet? List any two that his can do
10 Name any software which can be used to make a presentation
11 What is bandwidth?
What is WACC? (3 Marks)
What re the primary shortcoming of the Payback Period (3 Marks)
Difference between Temporary Currents assets and permanent Current assets
(5 Marks)
One is about market value and book value (5 marks)
In one find the NPV of given data which I don’t remember (5 marks)
10 marks
(i) Calculate the Payback Period for each project.
(ii) Calculate the Net Present Value (NPV) of each project.
10 Marks Question
Book Example
For example, the terms of 2/10, net 30 may be quoted for a certain customer.
– This means that the customer has 30 days from invoice date to pay the full
amount.
– If payment is made within 10 days, a 2% discount can be taken
• A buyer places an order for $1,000 under the terms 2/10, net 60. He has the option of
– paying $1,000 x (1 - .02) = $980 in 10 days, or
– paying the full $1,000 in 60 days.
• In general, the credit terms are interpreted as:
(take this discount off the invoice price)/(if you pay in this many days ), (else pay the
full amount in this many days)
What re the primary shortcoming of the Payback Period (3 Marks)
Difference between Temporary Currents assets and permanent Current assets
(5 Marks)
One is about market value and book value (5 marks)
In one find the NPV of given data which I don’t remember (5 marks)
10 marks
(i) Calculate the Payback Period for each project.
(ii) Calculate the Net Present Value (NPV) of each project.
10 Marks Question
Book Example
For example, the terms of 2/10, net 30 may be quoted for a certain customer.
– This means that the customer has 30 days from invoice date to pay the full
amount.
– If payment is made within 10 days, a 2% discount can be taken
• A buyer places an order for $1,000 under the terms 2/10, net 60. He has the option of
– paying $1,000 x (1 - .02) = $980 in 10 days, or
– paying the full $1,000 in 60 days.
• In general, the credit terms are interpreted as:
(take this discount off the invoice price)/(if you pay in this many days ), (else pay the
full amount in this many days)
Total Questions: 68
Total Marks: 92
Total MCQs: 64 Marks: 64
Total long Questions: 4 3+5+10+10 Marks: 28
Question # 1 what is basic point of executive summary of the "Interview Surveys". Marks: 3
Question # 2 What is mean by clustry? and what type of problem faceing this research? Marks: 5
Question # 3 Write the Basic Principle of Interview. Marks : 10
Question # 4 What is Termination of the interview. Marks : 10
MCQs are all the Lectures 1 to 45.
Total Marks: 92
Total MCQs: 64 Marks: 64
Total long Questions: 4 3+5+10+10 Marks: 28
Question # 1 what is basic point of executive summary of the "Interview Surveys". Marks: 3
Question # 2 What is mean by clustry? and what type of problem faceing this research? Marks: 5
Question # 3 Write the Basic Principle of Interview. Marks : 10
Question # 4 What is Termination of the interview. Marks : 10
MCQs are all the Lectures 1 to 45.
Total Questions: 68
Total Marks: 92
Total MCQs: 64 Marks: 64
Total long Questions: 4 3+5+10+10 Marks: 28
Question # 1 what is basic point of executive summary of the "Interview Surveys". Marks: 3
Question # 2 What is mean by clustry? and what type of problem faceing this research? Marks: 5
Question # 3 Write the Basic Principle of Interview. Marks : 10
Question # 4 What is Termination of the interview. Marks : 10
MCQs are all the Lectures 1 to 45
Q 1. What are the most appropriate uses of Debt? (Marks 3)
Q.2 Explain the following conditions
IRR < WACC IRR > WACC > SML
IRR < SML
IRR< WACC < SML
Q.3 Zeeshan and co issued a 2 year based par value Rs.1000/- and coupon Rate of 10% pa (and annual coupon payments). Zeshaan and co pays and investment bank Rs. 50 per bond to stockholder and the market bond they decide to sell the Bond for Rs. 950( i.e at discount) at the end of the shield require rate of return is 16% based on the net income and industry standard the marginal corporate Tax Rate is 30% of Net income
Required (Marks 10)
Assuming that the 2 year bond represent the only form of capital, calculate the after – tax weighted average cost of capital (WACC) % for zeeshan and co
Q.4 A 100% Equity (un – levered) firm as total Assets of Rs. 50000 weighted average cost of capital for an un – levered firm (WACCU) is 35% and cost of debt for un – levered firm (r d u ) of 20% it then adds Rs. 20000 of debt financial Risk increases cost of debts (r d L) of leverd Firm to 18%
(Marks 5)
Required
What is levered firms Cost of equity (r e L)?
What will be the WACC L of levered Firm
Q.5 Find the Beta on a stock given that its expected Return is 16% the Risk free rate is 4% and the Expected return on the Market portfolio is 12% (Marks 5)
Q.2 Explain the following conditions
IRR < WACC IRR > WACC > SML
IRR < SML
IRR< WACC < SML
Q.3 Zeeshan and co issued a 2 year based par value Rs.1000/- and coupon Rate of 10% pa (and annual coupon payments). Zeshaan and co pays and investment bank Rs. 50 per bond to stockholder and the market bond they decide to sell the Bond for Rs. 950( i.e at discount) at the end of the shield require rate of return is 16% based on the net income and industry standard the marginal corporate Tax Rate is 30% of Net income
Required (Marks 10)
Assuming that the 2 year bond represent the only form of capital, calculate the after – tax weighted average cost of capital (WACC) % for zeeshan and co
Q.4 A 100% Equity (un – levered) firm as total Assets of Rs. 50000 weighted average cost of capital for an un – levered firm (WACCU) is 35% and cost of debt for un – levered firm (r d u ) of 20% it then adds Rs. 20000 of debt financial Risk increases cost of debts (r d L) of leverd Firm to 18%
(Marks 5)
Required
What is levered firms Cost of equity (r e L)?
What will be the WACC L of levered Firm
Q.5 Find the Beta on a stock given that its expected Return is 16% the Risk free rate is 4% and the Expected return on the Market portfolio is 12% (Marks 5)
total Questions 44
35 MCQz....
3 Q 3marks
2 Q 5 marks
2 Q 10 marks
Questions related to theses topics
NFC
federalism
rule of law
Indus valley civilization
35 MCQz....
3 Q 3marks
2 Q 5 marks
2 Q 10 marks
Questions related to theses topics
NFC
federalism
rule of law
Indus valley civilization
FINALTERM EXAMINATION
Fall 2009
ECO401- Economics (Session - 2)
Time: 120 min
Marks: 87
Question No: 1 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
If pen and ink are complements, then an increase in the price of pen will cause:
► An increase in the price of ink.
► Less ink to be demanded at each price.
► A decrease in the demand for pen.
► A rightward shift in the demand curve for ink.
Question No: 2 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
A market is said to be in equilibrium when:
► Demand equals output.
► There is downward pressure on price.
► The amount consumers wish to buy at the current price equals the amount producers wish to sell at that price.
► All buyers are able to find sellers willing to sell to them at the current price.
Question No: 3 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
As more of a good is consumed, then total utility typically:
► Increases at a decreasing rate.
► Decreases as long as marginal utility is negative.
► Decreases as long as marginal utility is positive.
► Is negative as long as marginal utility is decreasing.
Question No: 4 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
A monopolistically competitive firm in short run equilibrium:
► Will make negative profit (lose money).
► Will make zero profit (break-even).
► Will make positive profit.
► Any of the given are possible.
Question No: 5 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
A monopolistically competitive firm in the long run equilibrium:
► Will make negative profit.
► Will make zero profit.
► Will make positive profit.
► Any of the given are possible.
Question No: 6 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
The market structure in which strategic considerations are most important is:
► Monopolistic competition.
► Oligopoly.
► Pure competition.
► Pure monopoly.
Question No: 7 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
The price elasticity of demand for any good must be less than or equal to zero unless:
► The good is a necessity.
► The good is a luxury.
► The good is a Giffen good.
► None of the given options.
Question No: 8 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
The textbook for your class was not produced in a perfectly competitive industry because:
► There are so few firms in the industry that market shares are not small, and firm's decisions have an impact on market price.
► Upper-division microeconomics texts are not all alike.
► It is not costless to enter or exit the textbook industry.
► All of the given options.
Question No: 9 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
In monopoly, which of the following is NOT true?
► Products are differentiated.
► There is freedom of entry and exit into the industry in the long run.
► The firm is a price maker.
► There is one main seller.
Question No: 10 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Under the kinked demand curve model, an increase in marginal cost will lead to:
► An increase in output level and a decrease in price.
► A decrease in output level and an increase in price.
► A decrease in output level and no change in price.
► Neither a change in output level nor a change in price.
Question No: 11 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
For a firm buying labor competitively, the marginal input cost is equal to the:
► Wage.
► Interest rate.
► Price of output.
► Cost of raw materials.
Question No: 12 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
The aggregate supply curve is the relationship between:
► The price level and the real domestic output purchased.
► The price level and the real domestic output produced.
► The price level which producers are willing to accept and the price level purchasers are willing to pay.
► The real domestic output purchased and the real domestic output produced.
Question No: 13 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
The long run aggregate supply curve will shift to the right if:
► The price level increases.
► Factors of production (such as labor and capital) increase.
► Expenditures (such as consumption and net exports) increase.
► The prices of inputs used to produce goods and services (such as wages and the price of oil) decrease.
Question No: 14 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Keynesian economics rejected the classical assumption that:
► Supply creates its own demand.
► Prices and wages are inflexible.
► Self-correction takes a long time.
► Consumption expenditures depend on disposable income.
Question No: 15 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Which of the following is NOT a stock variable?
► Government debt.
► Capital.
► The amount of money held by the public.
► Inventory investment.
Question No: 16 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
A nation's balance of payments can be affected by changes in:
► Foreign income.
► The differential between domestic and foreign interest rates.
► The real exchange rate.
► All of the given options.
Question No: 17 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Real GDP is equal to:
► Nominal GDP – Inflation.
► Nominal GDP + Inflation.
► Nominal GDP/ Inflation.
► Inflation / Nominal GDP.
Question No: 18 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
If we compare Gross Domestic Product (GDP) with Gross National Product (GNP) then:
► GNP = GDP – Net income from abroad.
► GNP = GDP + Net income from abroad.
► GNP = NNP – Net income from abroad.
► GNP = NNP + Net income from abroad.
Question No: 19 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
In Keynesian economics, if aggregate expenditures are less than aggregate output then:
► The price level rises.
► Inventories decrease.
► Employment decreases.
► Aggregate output increases.
Question No: 20 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Which of the following is true about supply curve under monopoly?
► It is same as the competitive market supply curve.
► It is the portion of marginal cost curve where marginal costs exceed the minimum value of average variable costs.
► It is the result of market power and production costs.
► None of the given statements is true.
Question No: 21 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
After the collusion, oligopolists are able to:
► Raise price but not restrict output.
► Raise price and restrict output but not attain the monopoly profit.
► Raise price and restrict output and therefore attain the monopoly profit.
► Restrict output but not raise price.
Question No: 22 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Which of the following event will lead towards cost-push inflation and therefore stagflation?
► An increase in taxes on individuals.
► A decrease in real interest rates.
► A union settlement that increases wage levels.
► An increase in government purchases.
Question No: 23 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Double counting in national income refers to:
► Counting a product more than once.
► Counting a product at the final stage of output process.
► Counting both as product and as factor payment.
► Counting both as real goods and as money flow.
Question No: 24 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
For knowing the spending capacity of the household sector, we have to use the concept of:
► National income.
► Personal income.
► Private income.
► Personal disposable income.
Question No: 25 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
For a study of the long term growth of the economy, we use:
► Real GNP.
► Nominal GNP.
► Personal income.
► Disposable personal income.
Question No: 26 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Which of the following is an example of a leakage?
► Saving.
► Investment.
► Exports.
► Government expenditures.
Question No: 27 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Total product of labor per day is shown in the following table and the price of the product is $10/unit. What is the value of the marginal product of labor (VMPL) of the 3rd worker?
Labor
Total Product
1
10
2
25
3
35
4
40
5
41
► 5.
► 10.
► 50.
► 100.
Question No: 28 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
In the short run, the equilibrium price level and the equilibrium level of total output are determined by the intersection of:
► The aggregate demand, the short-run aggregate supply and the long-run aggregate supply curves.
► The short-run aggregate supply and the long-run aggregate supply curves.
► The aggregate demand and the short-run aggregate supply curves.
► The aggregate demand and the long-run aggregate supply curves.
Question No: 29 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
What is the interest rate effect that explains why the aggregate demand curve slopes downward?
► It refers to the effect of changes in the price level on quantity of investment demanded which in turn affects interest rates.
► It refers to the effect of interest rates on borrowing which in turn affects consumption spending.
► It refers to the effect of changes in the price level on interest rates which in turn affects the quantity of investment demanded.
► It refers to the shifts in aggregate demand when interest rates change.
Question No: 30 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
In the classical world, you could always get a job if you:
► Had a good education.
► Worked in an industry that was recession proof.
► Had unemployment in the manufacturing sector.
► Would accept a lower wage.
Question No: 31 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
The level of output produced when the labor market is in equilibrium is called:
► Target output.
► Product market equilibrium output.
► Full-employment output.
► Natural output.
Question No: 32 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Which of the following economists came up with a theory regarding the tradeoff between unemployment and inflation?
► A.W. Phillips.
► John Maynard Keynes.
► Joseph Schumpeter.
► Milton Friedman.
Question No: 33 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Refer to the above figure, moving from B to A shows a tradeoff of:
► More unemployment for less inflation.
► Less unemployment for more inflation.
► A fixed amount of unemployment for more inflation.
► Less unemployment for less inflation.
Question No: 34 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Falling inflation means:
► That the price level is falling from one period to the next.
► That the price level is falling at a decreasing rate.
► That the price level is falling at an increasing rate.
► That the price level is increasing at a decreasing rate.
Question No: 35 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Disposable Personal Income
$
Consumption
$
100
140
200
220
300
300
400
380
500
460
Refer to the above table, when disposable personal income is $300, what is the amount of personal saving?
► −$40.
► −$20.
► $0.
► $20.
Question No: 36 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
The real exchange rate is defined as the:
► Market exchange rate adjusted for prices.
► Market exchange rate adjusted for interest rates.
► Market exchange rate.
► Exchange rate determined by the government.
Question No: 37 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
The interest rate parity is the basic identity that relates which of the following?
► Interest rates and exchange rates.
► Interest rates and inflation rate.
► Exchange rates and inflation rate.
► Discount rate and inflation rate.
Question No: 38 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Suppose there is a steady state condition in an economy with no population growth. In which condition, the steady-state level of capital per worker will increase?
► When the amount of investment per worker decreases.
► When the depreciation rate increases.
► When the saving rate increases.
► In all of the given options.
Question No: 39 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
“Government collects zero revenue if the tax rate is 0% and if the tax rate is 100%.” Which of the following best describes this statement?
► Consumption curve.
► Supply curve.
► Laffer curve.
► Investment curve.
Question No: 40 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
A tax on the accounting profits of corporations is known as:
► Sales tax.
► Excise tax.
► Corporate income tax.
► Personal income tax.
Question No: 41 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Which of the following shows the functions of money?
► A conductor of economic activity, a medium of exchange, and a store of value.
► A medium of exchange, a store of value, and a factor of production.
► A store of value, a medium of exchange, and a determinant of investment.
► A store of value, a unit of account, and a medium of exchange.
Question No: 42 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Which of the following best describes a bank’s reserves?
► The minimum value of assets it must have.
► The amount of gold it is required to have as reserves against loans.
► The value of federal securities it is required to have as reserves against loans.
► Deposits that bank has accepted from customers but have not loaned out.
Question No: 43 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
The special importance of banks among the financial institutions arises from:
► Their large and heavy transactions.
► Their position as suppliers of money.
► Their power to create money.
► Their influence on the economy.
Question No: 44 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Which of the following will be TRUE if real income rose and the interest rate fell following an increase in government purchases?
► IS curve must be vertical.
► LM curve must be vertical.
► Central Bank must have increased the money supply at the same time.
► Central Bank must have decreased the money supply at the same time.
Question No: 45 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
If money supply is fixed by the central bank then in interest rate-money supply space, money supply curve will be:
► Horizontal.
► Vertical.
► Negatively sloped.
► Positively sloped.
Question No: 46 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Why agriculture sector has an important role to play in the development process?
► Because a balanced approach to growth is necessary.
► Because the vast majority of an under developed country is engaged in agriculture.
► Because agriculture may be a major bottleneck in the process of development.
► Because of all of the given options.
Question No: 47 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Refer to the above figure, the marginal propensity to consume is:
► 0.25.
► 0.50.
► 0.60.
► 0.67.
Question No: 48 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Refer to the above figure, when disposable personal income is $2,000 billion:
► Personal saving is $1,200 billion.
► Consumption is $1,600 billion.
► Saving is $800 billion.
► Consumption is $800 billion.
Question No: 49 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
What is meant by the negative slope of a production possibilities curve?
► It means that some resources are always unemployed.
► It means that an economy can produce more of one thing only by producing less of something else.
► It means that opportunity costs are constant.
► It means that business can sell more when prices are low.
Question No: 50 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Which of the following is TRUE for a Giffen good?
► Its marginal utility is zero.
► Its demand curve is perfectly elastic.
► Its substitution effect is positive.
► Its demand curve is positively sloped.
Question No: 51 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Which of the following occur when an isocost line is just tangent to an isoquant?
► Output is being produced at minimum cost.
► Output is not being produced at minimum cost.
► The two products are being produced at the medium input cost to the firm.
► The two products are being produced at the highest input cost to the firm.
Question No: 52 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Which of the following is TRUE about L-shaped isoquant?
► It indicates that the firm could switch from one output to another costlessly.
► It indicates that the firm could not switch from one output to another.
► It indicates that capital and labor cannot be substituted for each other in production.
► It is impossible.
Question No: 53 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
The total cost (TC) function is given as: TC = 200 + 5Q. What is the fixed cost?
► 5Q.
► 5.
► 5 + (200/Q).
► 200.
Question No: 54 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
The total cost (TC) function is given as: TC = 200 + 5Q. What is the average total cost?
► 5Q.
► 5.
► 5 + (200/Q).
► None of the given options.
Question No: 55 ( Marks: 3 )
Define consumption function. Write down the determinants of consumption.
Question No: 56 ( Marks: 5 )
The paradox of thrift is demonstrated algebraically by equating leakages and injections. Suppose the Saving function is specified as S = -$10 billion +0.2Y, Gross imports equal $70 billion, Investment is $100 billion and Gross exports equal $70 billion. Calculate the equilibrium level of output by using leakages-injections approach.
Question No: 57 ( Marks: 5 )
Country
Commodity
Amount that can be produced in 1 year
USA
Cotton
40 units
Food
60 units
UK
Cotton
30 units
Food
20 units
A. Consider there is no international trade. See the above table and answer which country has absolute advantage in which product?
B. Draw the production possibility frontiers for USA and UK.
(Marks: 2+3)
Question No: 58 ( Marks: 10 )
A. From the information given below, calculate the following:
a) Nominal GDP in year 1
b) Nominal GDP in year 2
c) Growth rate in nominal GDP
Year 1
Year 2
Apples produced
100
150
Chicken produced
100
140
Cost per apple (Rs.)
2
4
Cost per chicken (Rs.)
4
6
B. Suppose that in the economy of Pakistan, the Real Gross National Product in 1987 was 1483 billion. In 1988, Real Gross National Product was 1510 billion. Calculate the growth rate of real Gross National Product from this information.
(Marks: 6+4)
Question No: 59 ( Marks: 10 )
(A) Following table shows the income earned by different factors of production.
Serial #
Rewards
Amount (billion rupees)
1
Wages and salaries
150.52
2
Interest on bonds and loans
50.63
3
Rent of properties
100.12
4
Profit
125.84
5
Corporate profit tax
50.26
6
Undistributed corporate profit
30.32
7
Contributions for social security
20.20
Find out the national income from this information.
(B) Although GDP provide us a good estimate about the overall production of the economy, but still it has some flaws. Discuss those flaws.
(Marks: 4+6
Fall 2009
ECO401- Economics (Session - 2)
Time: 120 min
Marks: 87
Question No: 1 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
If pen and ink are complements, then an increase in the price of pen will cause:
► An increase in the price of ink.
► Less ink to be demanded at each price.
► A decrease in the demand for pen.
► A rightward shift in the demand curve for ink.
Question No: 2 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
A market is said to be in equilibrium when:
► Demand equals output.
► There is downward pressure on price.
► The amount consumers wish to buy at the current price equals the amount producers wish to sell at that price.
► All buyers are able to find sellers willing to sell to them at the current price.
Question No: 3 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
As more of a good is consumed, then total utility typically:
► Increases at a decreasing rate.
► Decreases as long as marginal utility is negative.
► Decreases as long as marginal utility is positive.
► Is negative as long as marginal utility is decreasing.
Question No: 4 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
A monopolistically competitive firm in short run equilibrium:
► Will make negative profit (lose money).
► Will make zero profit (break-even).
► Will make positive profit.
► Any of the given are possible.
Question No: 5 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
A monopolistically competitive firm in the long run equilibrium:
► Will make negative profit.
► Will make zero profit.
► Will make positive profit.
► Any of the given are possible.
Question No: 6 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
The market structure in which strategic considerations are most important is:
► Monopolistic competition.
► Oligopoly.
► Pure competition.
► Pure monopoly.
Question No: 7 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
The price elasticity of demand for any good must be less than or equal to zero unless:
► The good is a necessity.
► The good is a luxury.
► The good is a Giffen good.
► None of the given options.
Question No: 8 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
The textbook for your class was not produced in a perfectly competitive industry because:
► There are so few firms in the industry that market shares are not small, and firm's decisions have an impact on market price.
► Upper-division microeconomics texts are not all alike.
► It is not costless to enter or exit the textbook industry.
► All of the given options.
Question No: 9 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
In monopoly, which of the following is NOT true?
► Products are differentiated.
► There is freedom of entry and exit into the industry in the long run.
► The firm is a price maker.
► There is one main seller.
Question No: 10 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Under the kinked demand curve model, an increase in marginal cost will lead to:
► An increase in output level and a decrease in price.
► A decrease in output level and an increase in price.
► A decrease in output level and no change in price.
► Neither a change in output level nor a change in price.
Question No: 11 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
For a firm buying labor competitively, the marginal input cost is equal to the:
► Wage.
► Interest rate.
► Price of output.
► Cost of raw materials.
Question No: 12 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
The aggregate supply curve is the relationship between:
► The price level and the real domestic output purchased.
► The price level and the real domestic output produced.
► The price level which producers are willing to accept and the price level purchasers are willing to pay.
► The real domestic output purchased and the real domestic output produced.
Question No: 13 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
The long run aggregate supply curve will shift to the right if:
► The price level increases.
► Factors of production (such as labor and capital) increase.
► Expenditures (such as consumption and net exports) increase.
► The prices of inputs used to produce goods and services (such as wages and the price of oil) decrease.
Question No: 14 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Keynesian economics rejected the classical assumption that:
► Supply creates its own demand.
► Prices and wages are inflexible.
► Self-correction takes a long time.
► Consumption expenditures depend on disposable income.
Question No: 15 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Which of the following is NOT a stock variable?
► Government debt.
► Capital.
► The amount of money held by the public.
► Inventory investment.
Question No: 16 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
A nation's balance of payments can be affected by changes in:
► Foreign income.
► The differential between domestic and foreign interest rates.
► The real exchange rate.
► All of the given options.
Question No: 17 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Real GDP is equal to:
► Nominal GDP – Inflation.
► Nominal GDP + Inflation.
► Nominal GDP/ Inflation.
► Inflation / Nominal GDP.
Question No: 18 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
If we compare Gross Domestic Product (GDP) with Gross National Product (GNP) then:
► GNP = GDP – Net income from abroad.
► GNP = GDP + Net income from abroad.
► GNP = NNP – Net income from abroad.
► GNP = NNP + Net income from abroad.
Question No: 19 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
In Keynesian economics, if aggregate expenditures are less than aggregate output then:
► The price level rises.
► Inventories decrease.
► Employment decreases.
► Aggregate output increases.
Question No: 20 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Which of the following is true about supply curve under monopoly?
► It is same as the competitive market supply curve.
► It is the portion of marginal cost curve where marginal costs exceed the minimum value of average variable costs.
► It is the result of market power and production costs.
► None of the given statements is true.
Question No: 21 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
After the collusion, oligopolists are able to:
► Raise price but not restrict output.
► Raise price and restrict output but not attain the monopoly profit.
► Raise price and restrict output and therefore attain the monopoly profit.
► Restrict output but not raise price.
Question No: 22 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Which of the following event will lead towards cost-push inflation and therefore stagflation?
► An increase in taxes on individuals.
► A decrease in real interest rates.
► A union settlement that increases wage levels.
► An increase in government purchases.
Question No: 23 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Double counting in national income refers to:
► Counting a product more than once.
► Counting a product at the final stage of output process.
► Counting both as product and as factor payment.
► Counting both as real goods and as money flow.
Question No: 24 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
For knowing the spending capacity of the household sector, we have to use the concept of:
► National income.
► Personal income.
► Private income.
► Personal disposable income.
Question No: 25 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
For a study of the long term growth of the economy, we use:
► Real GNP.
► Nominal GNP.
► Personal income.
► Disposable personal income.
Question No: 26 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Which of the following is an example of a leakage?
► Saving.
► Investment.
► Exports.
► Government expenditures.
Question No: 27 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Total product of labor per day is shown in the following table and the price of the product is $10/unit. What is the value of the marginal product of labor (VMPL) of the 3rd worker?
Labor
Total Product
1
10
2
25
3
35
4
40
5
41
► 5.
► 10.
► 50.
► 100.
Question No: 28 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
In the short run, the equilibrium price level and the equilibrium level of total output are determined by the intersection of:
► The aggregate demand, the short-run aggregate supply and the long-run aggregate supply curves.
► The short-run aggregate supply and the long-run aggregate supply curves.
► The aggregate demand and the short-run aggregate supply curves.
► The aggregate demand and the long-run aggregate supply curves.
Question No: 29 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
What is the interest rate effect that explains why the aggregate demand curve slopes downward?
► It refers to the effect of changes in the price level on quantity of investment demanded which in turn affects interest rates.
► It refers to the effect of interest rates on borrowing which in turn affects consumption spending.
► It refers to the effect of changes in the price level on interest rates which in turn affects the quantity of investment demanded.
► It refers to the shifts in aggregate demand when interest rates change.
Question No: 30 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
In the classical world, you could always get a job if you:
► Had a good education.
► Worked in an industry that was recession proof.
► Had unemployment in the manufacturing sector.
► Would accept a lower wage.
Question No: 31 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
The level of output produced when the labor market is in equilibrium is called:
► Target output.
► Product market equilibrium output.
► Full-employment output.
► Natural output.
Question No: 32 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Which of the following economists came up with a theory regarding the tradeoff between unemployment and inflation?
► A.W. Phillips.
► John Maynard Keynes.
► Joseph Schumpeter.
► Milton Friedman.
Question No: 33 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Refer to the above figure, moving from B to A shows a tradeoff of:
► More unemployment for less inflation.
► Less unemployment for more inflation.
► A fixed amount of unemployment for more inflation.
► Less unemployment for less inflation.
Question No: 34 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Falling inflation means:
► That the price level is falling from one period to the next.
► That the price level is falling at a decreasing rate.
► That the price level is falling at an increasing rate.
► That the price level is increasing at a decreasing rate.
Question No: 35 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Disposable Personal Income
$
Consumption
$
100
140
200
220
300
300
400
380
500
460
Refer to the above table, when disposable personal income is $300, what is the amount of personal saving?
► −$40.
► −$20.
► $0.
► $20.
Question No: 36 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
The real exchange rate is defined as the:
► Market exchange rate adjusted for prices.
► Market exchange rate adjusted for interest rates.
► Market exchange rate.
► Exchange rate determined by the government.
Question No: 37 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
The interest rate parity is the basic identity that relates which of the following?
► Interest rates and exchange rates.
► Interest rates and inflation rate.
► Exchange rates and inflation rate.
► Discount rate and inflation rate.
Question No: 38 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Suppose there is a steady state condition in an economy with no population growth. In which condition, the steady-state level of capital per worker will increase?
► When the amount of investment per worker decreases.
► When the depreciation rate increases.
► When the saving rate increases.
► In all of the given options.
Question No: 39 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
“Government collects zero revenue if the tax rate is 0% and if the tax rate is 100%.” Which of the following best describes this statement?
► Consumption curve.
► Supply curve.
► Laffer curve.
► Investment curve.
Question No: 40 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
A tax on the accounting profits of corporations is known as:
► Sales tax.
► Excise tax.
► Corporate income tax.
► Personal income tax.
Question No: 41 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Which of the following shows the functions of money?
► A conductor of economic activity, a medium of exchange, and a store of value.
► A medium of exchange, a store of value, and a factor of production.
► A store of value, a medium of exchange, and a determinant of investment.
► A store of value, a unit of account, and a medium of exchange.
Question No: 42 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Which of the following best describes a bank’s reserves?
► The minimum value of assets it must have.
► The amount of gold it is required to have as reserves against loans.
► The value of federal securities it is required to have as reserves against loans.
► Deposits that bank has accepted from customers but have not loaned out.
Question No: 43 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
The special importance of banks among the financial institutions arises from:
► Their large and heavy transactions.
► Their position as suppliers of money.
► Their power to create money.
► Their influence on the economy.
Question No: 44 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Which of the following will be TRUE if real income rose and the interest rate fell following an increase in government purchases?
► IS curve must be vertical.
► LM curve must be vertical.
► Central Bank must have increased the money supply at the same time.
► Central Bank must have decreased the money supply at the same time.
Question No: 45 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
If money supply is fixed by the central bank then in interest rate-money supply space, money supply curve will be:
► Horizontal.
► Vertical.
► Negatively sloped.
► Positively sloped.
Question No: 46 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Why agriculture sector has an important role to play in the development process?
► Because a balanced approach to growth is necessary.
► Because the vast majority of an under developed country is engaged in agriculture.
► Because agriculture may be a major bottleneck in the process of development.
► Because of all of the given options.
Question No: 47 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Refer to the above figure, the marginal propensity to consume is:
► 0.25.
► 0.50.
► 0.60.
► 0.67.
Question No: 48 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Refer to the above figure, when disposable personal income is $2,000 billion:
► Personal saving is $1,200 billion.
► Consumption is $1,600 billion.
► Saving is $800 billion.
► Consumption is $800 billion.
Question No: 49 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
What is meant by the negative slope of a production possibilities curve?
► It means that some resources are always unemployed.
► It means that an economy can produce more of one thing only by producing less of something else.
► It means that opportunity costs are constant.
► It means that business can sell more when prices are low.
Question No: 50 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Which of the following is TRUE for a Giffen good?
► Its marginal utility is zero.
► Its demand curve is perfectly elastic.
► Its substitution effect is positive.
► Its demand curve is positively sloped.
Question No: 51 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Which of the following occur when an isocost line is just tangent to an isoquant?
► Output is being produced at minimum cost.
► Output is not being produced at minimum cost.
► The two products are being produced at the medium input cost to the firm.
► The two products are being produced at the highest input cost to the firm.
Question No: 52 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
Which of the following is TRUE about L-shaped isoquant?
► It indicates that the firm could switch from one output to another costlessly.
► It indicates that the firm could not switch from one output to another.
► It indicates that capital and labor cannot be substituted for each other in production.
► It is impossible.
Question No: 53 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
The total cost (TC) function is given as: TC = 200 + 5Q. What is the fixed cost?
► 5Q.
► 5.
► 5 + (200/Q).
► 200.
Question No: 54 ( Marks: 1 ) - Please choose one
The total cost (TC) function is given as: TC = 200 + 5Q. What is the average total cost?
► 5Q.
► 5.
► 5 + (200/Q).
► None of the given options.
Question No: 55 ( Marks: 3 )
Define consumption function. Write down the determinants of consumption.
Question No: 56 ( Marks: 5 )
The paradox of thrift is demonstrated algebraically by equating leakages and injections. Suppose the Saving function is specified as S = -$10 billion +0.2Y, Gross imports equal $70 billion, Investment is $100 billion and Gross exports equal $70 billion. Calculate the equilibrium level of output by using leakages-injections approach.
Question No: 57 ( Marks: 5 )
Country
Commodity
Amount that can be produced in 1 year
USA
Cotton
40 units
Food
60 units
UK
Cotton
30 units
Food
20 units
A. Consider there is no international trade. See the above table and answer which country has absolute advantage in which product?
B. Draw the production possibility frontiers for USA and UK.
(Marks: 2+3)
Question No: 58 ( Marks: 10 )
A. From the information given below, calculate the following:
a) Nominal GDP in year 1
b) Nominal GDP in year 2
c) Growth rate in nominal GDP
Year 1
Year 2
Apples produced
100
150
Chicken produced
100
140
Cost per apple (Rs.)
2
4
Cost per chicken (Rs.)
4
6
B. Suppose that in the economy of Pakistan, the Real Gross National Product in 1987 was 1483 billion. In 1988, Real Gross National Product was 1510 billion. Calculate the growth rate of real Gross National Product from this information.
(Marks: 6+4)
Question No: 59 ( Marks: 10 )
(A) Following table shows the income earned by different factors of production.
Serial #
Rewards
Amount (billion rupees)
1
Wages and salaries
150.52
2
Interest on bonds and loans
50.63
3
Rent of properties
100.12
4
Profit
125.84
5
Corporate profit tax
50.26
6
Undistributed corporate profit
30.32
7
Contributions for social security
20.20
Find out the national income from this information.
(B) Although GDP provide us a good estimate about the overall production of the economy, but still it has some flaws. Discuss those flaws.
(Marks: 4+6
Human resouce Managment was as under:
There were Total 68 Question
Out of 68 there were 64 objectives
One question had 03 marks
One Question had 05 marks
Other Two were 10 marks
NOTE:
Most of the objective were from the Performance appraisal and Incentives Bonuses etc
The main Questions were
Q: There are some mistakes in Performance appraisal write down any five of them with examples (Marks 10)
Q: How you can make the smoke free envoirnment from the organization?
Q: Write down the Performance Appraisal methods?
There were Total 68 Question
Out of 68 there were 64 objectives
One question had 03 marks
One Question had 05 marks
Other Two were 10 marks
NOTE:
Most of the objective were from the Performance appraisal and Incentives Bonuses etc
The main Questions were
Q: There are some mistakes in Performance appraisal write down any five of them with examples (Marks 10)
Q: How you can make the smoke free envoirnment from the organization?
Q: Write down the Performance Appraisal methods?
total Questions 44
35 MCQz....
3 Q 3marks
2 Q 5 marks
2 Q 10 marks
Questions related to theses topics
NFC
federalism
rule of law
Indus valley civilization
35 MCQz....
3 Q 3marks
2 Q 5 marks
2 Q 10 marks
Questions related to theses topics
NFC
federalism
rule of law
Indus valley civilization
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You all are requested, please share/send your papers' question to us and post on our chat room for convenience of other students.
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You all are requested, please share/send your papers' question to us and post on our chat room for convenience of other students.
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VUsolutions
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Rationalism is the application of:
Select correct option:
Research solution
Logic and arguments
Reasoning
Previous findings
Question # 3 of 10
Total Marks: 1
The independent variable is;
Select correct option:
The variable manipulated in order to observe its effects
The variable that is measured
The free spirited variable
A confounding variable
What research is?
Select correct option:
A lab experiment
A report
A systematic Enquiry
A procedure
If a researcher is studying the effectof using laptops in his classroom to ascertain their merit and worth,he is likely conducting which type of research?
Select correct option:
Basic
Applied
Evaluation
Experimental
The elaboration of the variables in the theoretical framework addresses which type of qestions?
Select correct option:
Why we expect certain relationships to exist
How we expect certain relationships to exist
Both of the given questions
None of the given questions
What is an hypothesis?
Select correct option:
A prediction of a relationship between certain variables.
An experiment that tests certain predictions.
An independent variable.
A dependent variable
Question # 9 of 10
Total Marks: 1
A literature review requires;
Select correct option:
planning
clear writing
good writing
All of the given option
Question # 10 of 10
Total Marks: 1
12. Which of the following true about the relationship between theory building and data collection?
Select correct option:
When studies come out as expected, inductive support for the theory is gained.
If an experiment fails, discarding the experiment is an example of affirming the consequent.
When a hypothesis is not supported, virtually nothing has been learned about the theory.
A good theory will be inclusive enough to explain every possible research outcome.
Select correct option:
Research solution
Logic and arguments
Reasoning
Previous findings
Question # 3 of 10
Total Marks: 1
The independent variable is;
Select correct option:
The variable manipulated in order to observe its effects
The variable that is measured
The free spirited variable
A confounding variable
What research is?
Select correct option:
A lab experiment
A report
A systematic Enquiry
A procedure
If a researcher is studying the effectof using laptops in his classroom to ascertain their merit and worth,he is likely conducting which type of research?
Select correct option:
Basic
Applied
Evaluation
Experimental
The elaboration of the variables in the theoretical framework addresses which type of qestions?
Select correct option:
Why we expect certain relationships to exist
How we expect certain relationships to exist
Both of the given questions
None of the given questions
What is an hypothesis?
Select correct option:
A prediction of a relationship between certain variables.
An experiment that tests certain predictions.
An independent variable.
A dependent variable
Question # 9 of 10
Total Marks: 1
A literature review requires;
Select correct option:
planning
clear writing
good writing
All of the given option
Question # 10 of 10
Total Marks: 1
12. Which of the following true about the relationship between theory building and data collection?
Select correct option:
from VUsolutions
When studies come out as expected, inductive support for the theory is gained.
If an experiment fails, discarding the experiment is an example of affirming the consequent.
When a hypothesis is not supported, virtually nothing has been learned about the theory.
A good theory will be inclusive enough to explain every possible research outcome.
_________ meanings attached to a concept create problems of measurements . Select correct option: Unambiguous Vague Clear Dictionary |
When we say that science is parsimonious, we mean that: Select correct option: Scientific theories are based on laws. We must be careful because causes can occur after specific effects. The best scientific theories are those that offer the simplest explanations for a law. Science accurately describes a wide range of behavior. |
Which of the following is not a function of clearly identified research questions? Select correct option: They guide your literature search. They keep you focused throughout the data collection period. They make the scope of your research as wide as possible. They are linked together to help you construct a coherent argument. |
A concept is a generalized idea about------ . Select correct option: A class of objects Attributes Occurrences All of the given options |
The ________ is only useful if the concepts, ideas, questions, etc. to be investigated are both testable and falsifiable. Select correct option: Independent Variable Dependent Variable Experimental Method Scientific Method |
A literature review requires; Select correct option: planning clear writing good writing All of the given option |
An operational definition is: Select correct option: One that bears no relation to the underlying concept. An abstract, theoretical definition of a concept. A definition of a concept in terms of specific, empirical measures. One that refers to opera singers and their work. |
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a good research topic? Select correct option: It is ethical. It can be investigated through the collection and analysis of data. It focuses on a philosophical or ethical issue. It is theoretically or practically significant. from VUsolutions |
Rationalism is the application of: Select correct option: Research solution Logic and arguments Reasoning Previous findings Question The key objective of data analysis is to: Select correct option: Calculate statistics Understand relationships between variables Obtain the distribution of responses for each question Create tables which display the survey results Question Why, as scientists, do we not want to rely on authority for explanations? Select correct option: Those in authority are often wrong. Those in authority cannot be challenged. Those in authority rely too much on objective information. Those in authority often have no common sense. Question Ms. Roshi has been coordinating the Annual Festival at her school for the last several years. She wants to be sure the students and parents enjoy the festival again this year. On which source is she LEAST likely to rely when making decisions about what to do? Select correct option: Tradition Personal experience Research Expert opinion Question Which of the following questions might invade the privacy of a research participant? Select correct option: How long have you worked for this organisation? What is your home address? What do you think about your direct line manager? What happened during your last performance appraisal? Question Which of the following is not a concept? Select correct option: Leadership Total Quality Management Human Resource Management IQ Question Research may differ along a series of dimensions. Which of the following may be applied to this statement? Select correct option: The type of data collected. The data-collection technique. The level of manipulation used to elicit data collection. All of the given options Question Preliminary Data Collection may be considered as part of ----------------. Select correct option: Descriptive research Explananory research Exploratory research All of the given options Question After you locate a source, you should write down all details of the reference, except; Select correct option: Full names of the authors Titles Volumes Price Question What is the reason for consulting handbooks, yearbooks, encyclopedias, or reviews in the initial stages of identifying a research topic? Select correct option: They are readily available. They provide an overview of the issues related to a topic. They are primary sources. They avoid reporting statistical data so one can interpret the results more easily. Question When doing research involving deception with human subjects, researchers have an obligation to do which of the following? Select correct option: Tell subjects the truth about the study’s purpose and methods after the study is complete Prevent mental and physical harm to subjects Let subjects withdraw from the study at any time if they don’t want to keep participating All of the given options Question Which of the following steps of the scientific method is exemplified by the researcher reviewing the literature and focusing on a specific problem that has yet to be resolved? Select correct option: Identify a topic. Describe the procedures to collect information. Analyze the collected information. State the results of the data analysis. Question An operational definition is: Select correct option: from VUsolutions One that bears no relation to the underlying concept. An abstract, theoretical definition of a concept. A definition of a concept in terms of specific, empirical measures. One that refers to opera singers and their work. Question What is the first step in the research process? Select correct option: Preliminary data collection Problem definition Theoretical framework Define broad problem area Question To say that a theory is falsifiable is to say that; Select correct option: It is based on rults that are not replicable. Investigators have replaced it with a simpler or more accurate theory. We can imagine results that would contradict it. It is so vague that it fits any and all possible results. Question Which of the following is not an unethical issue? Select correct option: Invoicing irregularities Avoiding legal liability Misrepresenting results None of the given options Question The application of the scientific method to the study of business problems is called; Select correct option: Inductive reasoning Deductive reasoning Business research Grounded theory Question Which of the following terms represents the most general, broad concept? Select correct option: Test Assessment Measurement Instrument Question Which of the following should not be a consideration in writing a proposal? Select correct option: Understanding the problem situation The apearance/form of the proposal Responding to every element exactly as specified by the client Knowing as much as possible about the proposal recipients 1) How can we determine if a test has good validity? It produces the same result when it is given at different times to the same ***** of people It produces the same result no matter which version of the test is used It measures what it is supposed to measure All of the questions on it can be answered accurately by the subject 2) Why do you need to review the existing literature? To give your dissertation a proper academic appearance, with lots of references Because without it, you could never reach the required word-count To find out what is already known about your area of interest To help in your general studying 3) When you are confident that the experimental manipulation produced the changes you measured in the dependent variable, your study probably has good ________ validity. Construct Internal External Causal 4) Preliminary Data Collection may be considered as part of ----------------? Descriptive research Explananory research Exploratory research All of the given options 5) Rationalism is the application of: Research solution Logic and arguments Reasoning Previous findings 6) If a researcher is studying the effect of using laptops in his classroom to ascertain their merit and worth, he is likely conducting which type of research? Basic Applied Evaluation Experimental 7) _________ meanings attached to a concept create problems of measurements. Unambiguous Vague Clear Dictionary 8) Which of the the following is not included in Objects? Tables People Books Weight 9) Which one of the following creates problems of measurements of a concept? Unambiguous meanings Vague meanings Clear meanings Dictionary meanings 10) The ________ is only useful if the concepts, ideas, questions, etc. to be investigated are both testable and falsifiable. Independent Variable Dependent Variable Experimental Method Scientific Method 11) Which of the following is likely to reduce the validity of a test? Unclear test directions Ambiguous test items Untaught items All of the given options 12) If a researcher was studying the use of various instructional approaches to the "multiple intelligences" of his students, he is likely to be conducting which type of research? Basic Applied Evaluation Grounded theory 13) What is opposite of a variable? A constant An extraneous variable A dependent variable A data set 14) The extent to which we can generalize the results of a study to other participants is called: Sampling validity External validity Construct validity Internal validity Basic Applied Evaluation Experimental 23) The organization of concepts in sequence from the most concrete and individual to the most general indicates is: One that bears no relation to the underlying concept. An abstract, theoretical definition of a concept. The degree of abstraction An operational definition 24) Which one of the following is not an assumption of science?
25) A concept is a generalized idea about------ . A class of objects Attributes Occurrences All of the given options 26) Procedures determining what two issues are rarely used in quantitative research? Objectivity and subjectivity Reliability and validity Accessibility and replicability Quality and quantity Question Which of the following is the BEST hypothesis? Select correct option: Students taking formative quizzes will perform better on chapter exams than students not taking these quizzes. Taller students will have higher test scores than shorter students. Students taught in a cooperative ***** setting should do better than students in a traditional class. Students using laptops will do well. Question 12. Which of the following true about the relationship between theory building and data collection? Select correct option: When studies come out as expected, inductive support for the theory is gained. If an experiment fails, discarding the experiment is an example of affirming the consequent. When a hypothesis is not supported, virtually nothing has been learned about the theory. A good theory will be inclusive enough to explain every possible research outcome. Question Which of the following steps of the scientific method is exemplified by the researcher reviewing the literature and focusing on a specific problem that has yet to be resolved? Select correct option: Identify a topic. Describe the procedures to collect information. Analyze the collected information. State the results of the data analysis. Question When we say that science is parsimonious, we mean that: Select correct option: Scientific theories are based on laws. We must be careful because causes can occur after specific effects. The best scientific theories are those that offer the simplest explanations for a law. Science accurately describes a wide range of behavior. Question When you are confident that the experimental manipulation produced the changes you measured in the dependent variable, your study probably has good ________ validity. Select correct option: Construct Internal External Causal Question What is the final step of a scientific investigation? Select correct option: Analyze data Collect data Report the findings Determine whether the hypothesis was supported Question The most difficult sources to locate are; Select correct option: Dissertations Policy Reports and Presented Papers Government Documents Scholarly Books Question Which of the following is the least appropriate research problem? Select correct option: Does studying Latin improve the standardized vocabulary test scores of seventh grade students? Does drilling fifth grade students with multiplication facts improve their standardized test scores? What is the relationship between students' math attitudes and math achievement? Should students have access to controversial novels in school? Question 1 Ms. Tania is thinking about changing her instructional approach to a more mastery-learning orientation. She is interested in knowing more about this topic as well as its effectiveness when working with elementary school students. On which source should she rely for such information? Select correct option: Tradition Research Intuition Personal experience Question A good qualitative problem statement: Select correct option: Defines the independent and dependent variables Conveys a sense of emerging design Specifies a research hypothesis to be tested Specifies the relationship between variables that the researcher expects to find. Question Which one of the following is not an assumption of science? Select correct option: There are reoccurring patterns in the world. Events happen because of preceding causes. We can discover solutions to problems of interest. Theoretical explanations must agree with common sense. Questio Which of the following is most beneficial to read in an article? Select correct option: Methods Introduction Figures References Question If a researcher was studying the use of various instructional approaches to the "multiple intelligences" of his students, he is likely to be conducting which type of research? Select correct option: Basic Applied Evaluation Grounded theory Question The elaboration of the variables in the theoretical framework addresses which type of qestions? Select correct option: Why we expect certain relationships to exist How weexpect certain relationships to exist Both of the given questions None of the given questions Question What research is? Select correct option: A lab experiment A report A systematic Enquiry A procedure Question The scientific method is preferred over other ways of knowing because it is more; Select correct option: Reliable Systematic Accurate All of the given options Question What is ordinal data? Select correct option: Ordinary data Well behaved data Ranked data Numbers Question Why, as scientists, do we not want to rely on authority for explanations? Select correct option: Those in authority are often wrong. Those in authority cannot be challenged. Those in authority rely too much on objective information. Those in authority often have no common sense. Question A literature review requires; Select correct option: planning clear writing good writing All of the given option
People are not likely to be able to stop once they have begun participating. Informed consent cannot be completely monitored. Debriefing could be avoided. Privacy could be invaded. All of these are characteristics of scientific methods of research except, it is; Select correct option: Cumulative Deterministic Unethical Rationalism Which of the following is not an unethical issue? Select correct option: Invoicing irregularities Avoiding legal liability Misrepresenting results None of the given options Research may differ along a series of dimensions. Which of the following may be applied to this statement? Select correct option: The type of data collected. The data-collection technique. The level of manipulation used to elicit data collection. All of the given options Which one of the following creates problems of measurements of a concept? Select correct option: Unambiguous meanings Vague meanings Clear meanings Dictionary meanings What is the basis of the Scientific Method? Select correct option: To test hypotheses in conditions that are condusive to its success. To formulate a research problem and disprove the hypothesis. To formulate a research problem, test the hypothesis in carefully controlled conditions that challenge the hypothesis. To test hypotheses and if they are disproved, they should be abandoned completely.  Which of the following is likely to reduce the validity of a test? Select correct option: Unclear test directions Ambiguous test items Untaught items All of the given options One of the preoccupations of quantitative researchers is with generalization, which is a sign of: Select correct option: External validity Internal reliability External reliability Internal validity In the statement 'an examination of the effects of discretionary behaviour on employee performance' employee performance is the: Select correct option: Independent variable Dependent variable Extraneous variable Causal variable Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a good research topic? Select correct option: It is ethical. It can be investigated through the collection and analysis of data. It focuses on a philosophical or ethical issue. It is theoretically or practically significant. A telephone company is interested in obtaining customers' reactions to a new service package. Which of the following primary research methods would be most effective in reaching this audience to obtain their feedback? Select correct option: An Internet survey Telephone interviews A mail survey Focus groups Which of the following is NOT a longitudinal study? Select correct option: Trend study Census study Panel study Cohort study Which type of sampling strategy is exemplified by selecting two types of individuals: those who are extremely happy and those who are extremely sad? Measurement reliability refers to the: Select correct option: Accuracy of the scores Consistency of the scores Dependency of the scores Comprehensiveness of the scores Which of the following is the best hypothesis statement to address the research question, "What impact will the new advertising campaign have on use of Brand B?" Select correct option: The new advertising campaign will impact Brand B usage. The new advertising campaign will increase Brand B trial. The new advertising campaign will cause increased Brand B usage at the expense of Brand C. The new advertising campaign will increase Brand B's market penetration. Quantitative social researchers rarely claim to have established causality because: Select correct option: They are more concerned with publishing the results of their reliability tests. They do not believe that this is an appropriate goal to be striving for. They keep forgetting which of the variables they have manipulated. They tend to use cross-sectional designs, which produce only correlations. Question # 2 of 20 ( Start time: 03:43:48 PM ) Total Marks: 1 Quantitative researcher's preoccupation with generalization is an attempt to: Select correct option: Develop the law like findings of the natural sciences. Boost their chances of publication. Enhance the internal validity of their research. Demonstrate the complex techniques of statistical analysis. Question # 3 of 20 ( Start time: 03:45:13 PM ) Total Marks: 1 Which of the following is the least obtrusive and most accurate method for recording data in an interview? Select correct option: Note taking Videotaping Audiotaping Writing notes after the interview Question # 4 of 20 ( Start time: 03:46:41 PM ) Total Marks: 1 A researcher developed a measure of shyness and is now asking whether this measure does in fact measure a person's true state of shyness. This is a question of: Select correct option: Reactivity Construct validity Reliability Content validity Question # 5 of 20 ( Start time: 03:48:01 PM ) Total Marks: 1 A variable is: Select correct option: Any characteristic of interest that can take on more than one value Defined as the groups manipulated in experimental research The complete set of scores we use in statistical analysis Completely specified only in observational research Question # 15 of 20 ( Start time: 03:58:22 PM ) Total Marks: 1 All of the following are true about theories, except; Select correct option: They organize and summarize existing knowledge about a topic. They are tentative until the facts prove them true. They provide possible explanations for the phenomenon under study. They lead to testable hypotheses through the process of deduction. Question # 16 of 20 ( Start time: 03:59:44 PM ) Total Marks: 1 Which of the following is an example of an issue that would be checked in a pilot testing? Select correct option: Completion of all questions on a questionnaire Legible writing Single responses to all multiple choice questions Logical answers between questions (i.e., attributes should be rated high if purchase interest is high) Which of the following is least likely to occur as an ethical problem with e-research? Select correct option: People are not likely to be able to stop once they have begun participating. Informed consent cannot be completely monitored. Debriefing could be avoided. Privacy could be invaded. All of these are characteristics of scientific methods of research except, it is; Select correct option: Cumulative Deterministic Unethical Rationalism Which of the following is not an unethical issue? Select correct option: Invoicing irregularities Avoiding legal liability Misrepresenting results None of the given options Research may differ along a series of dimensions. Which of the following may be applied to this statement? Select correct option: The type of data collected. The data-collection technique. The level of manipulation used to elicit data collection. All of the given options Which one of the following creates problems of measurements of a concept? Select correct option: Unambiguous meanings Vague meanings Clear meanings Dictionary meanings What is the basis of the Scientific Method? Select correct option: To test hypotheses in conditions that are condusive to its success. To formulate a research problem and disprove the hypothesis. To formulate a research problem, test the hypothesis in carefully controlled conditions that challenge the hypothesis. To test hypotheses and if they are disproved, they should be abandoned completely. Which of the following is likely to reduce the validity of a test? Select correct option: Unclear test directions Ambiguous test items Untaught items All of the given options One of the preoccupations of quantitative researchers is with generalization, which is a sign of: Select correct option: External validity Internal reliability External reliability Internal validity In the statement 'an examination of the effects of discretionary behaviour on employee performance' employee performance is the: Select correct option: Independent variable Dependent variable Extraneous variable Causal variable Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a good research topic? Select correct option: It is ethical. It can be investigated through the collection and analysis of data. It focuses on a philosophical or ethical issue. It is theoretically or practically significant. A telephone company is interested in obtaining customers' reactions to a new service package. Which of the following primary research methods would be most effective in reaching this audience to obtain their feedback? Select correct option: An Internet survey Telephone interviews A mail survey Focus groups Which of the following is NOT a longitudinal study? Select correct option: Trend study Census study Panel study Cohort study Which type of sampling strategy is exemplified by selecting two types of individuals: those who are extremely happy and those who are extremely sad? Intensity Measurement reliability refers to the: Select correct option: Accuracy of the scores Consistency of the scores Dependency of the scores Comprehensiveness of the scores Which of the following is the best hypothesis statement to address the research question, "What impact will the new advertising campaign have on use of Brand B?" Select correct option: The new advertising campaign will impact Brand B usage. The new advertising campaign will increase Brand B trial. The new advertising campaign will cause increased Brand B usage at the expense of Brand C. The new advertising campaign will increase Brand B's market penetration. Quantitative social researchers rarely claim to have established causality because: Select correct option: They are more concerned with publishing the results of their reliability tests. They do not believe that this is an appropriate goal to be striving for. They keep forgetting which of the variables they have manipulated. They tend to use cross-sectional designs, which produce only correlations. Question # 2 of 20 ( Start time: 03:43:48 PM ) Total Marks: 1 Quantitative researcher's preoccupation with generalization is an attempt to: Select correct option: Develop the law like findings of the natural sciences. Boost their chances of publication. Enhance the internal validity of their research. Demonstrate the complex techniques of statistical analysis. Question # 3 of 20 ( Start time: 03:45:13 PM ) Total Marks: 1 Which of the following is the least obtrusive and most accurate method for recording data in an interview? Select correct option: Note taking Videotaping Audiotaping Writing notes after the interview Question # 4 of 20 ( Start time: 03:46:41 PM ) Total Marks: 1 A researcher developed a measure of shyness and is now asking whether this measure does in fact measure a person's true state of shyness. This is a question of: Select correct option: Reactivity Construct validity Reliability Content validity Question # 5 of 20 ( Start time: 03:48:01 PM ) Total Marks: 1 A variable is: Select correct option: Any characteristic of interest that can take on more than one value Defined as the groups manipulated in experimental research The complete set of scores we use in statistical analysis Completely specified only in observational research Question # 15 of 20 ( Start time: 03:58:22 PM ) Total Marks: 1 All of the following are true about theories, except; Select correct option: They organize and summarize existing knowledge about a topic. They are tentative until the facts prove them true. They provide possible explanations for the phenomenon under study. They lead to testable hypotheses through the process of deduction. Question # 16 of 20 ( Start time: 03:59:44 PM ) Total Marks: 1 Which of the following is an example of an issue that would be checked in a pilot testing? Select correct option: Completion of all questions on a questionnaire Legible writing Single responses to all multiple choice questions Logical answers between questions (i.e., attributes should be rated high if purchase interest is high) Question # 20 of 20 ( Start time: 07:56:31 PM ) Total Marks: 1 To say that a theory is falsifiable is to say that; Select correct option: It is based on results that are not replicable. Investigators have replaced it with a simpler or more accurate theory. We can imagine results that would contradict it. It is so vague that it fits any and all possible results. Question # 19 of 20 ( Start time: 07:55:48 PM ) Total Marks: 1 Why does qualitative interviewing have an advantage over participant observation when it comes to longitudinal research? Select correct option: Repeat interviews are easier to organise. It allows for a better exploration of key issues. It is a more focused research method. Participant observers are prone to 'go native' during longitudinal research. Question # 18 of 20 ( Start time: 07:55:23 PM ) Total Marks: 1 Which of the following is the least obtrusive and most accurate method for recording data in an interview? Select correct option: Note taking Videotaping Audiotaping Writing notes after the interview Question # 17 of 20 ( Start time: 07:54:49 PM ) Total Marks: 1 Mr. Haris is interested in studying the shared beliefs and practices of the teachers in a small rural school. He is likely to use which research design? Select correct option: Action research Historical research Ethnography Grounded theory Question # 16 of 20 ( Start time: 07:53:28 PM ) Total Marks: 1 Which of the following is an example of an issue that would be checked in a pilot testing? Select correct option: Completion of all questions on a questionnaire Legible writing Single responses to all multiple choice questions Logical answers between questions (i.e., attributes should be rated high if purchase interest is high) Question # 15 of 20 ( Start time: 07:52:51 PM ) Total Marks: 1 What is the basis of the Scientific Method? Select correct option: To test hypotheses in conditions that are condusive to its success. To formulate a research problem and disprove the hypothesis. To formulate a research problem, test the hypothesis in carefully controlled conditions that challenge the hypothesis. To test hypotheses and if they are disproved, they should be abandoned completely. Question # 14 of 20 ( Start time: 07:51:30 PM ) Total Marks: 1 Which one of the following is not an assumption of science? Select correct option: There are reoccurring patterns in the world. Events happen because of preceding causes. We can discover solutions to problems of interest. Theoretical explanations must agree with common sense. Question # 13 of 20 ( Start time: 07:50:38 PM ) Total Marks: 1 Which of the following is an advantage of open questions? Select correct option: They allow respondents to answer in their own terms. They prevent respondents from giving unusual answers. They allow respondents to put less effort into their answer. They allow respondents to code their answers in advance. Question # 12 of 20 ( Start time: 07:50:05 PM ) Total Marks: 1 Detailed and unambiguous instructions are particularly important for: Select correct option: Computer-assisted telephone surveys Mail surveys Computer-assisted personal interviews Internet surveys Question # 11 of 20 ( Start time: 07:48:40 PM ) Total Marks: 1 Which of the following is not a feature of theoretical framework? Select correct option: Making an inventory of variables Specify the direction of relationship Presenting findings Making an inventory of propositions Question # 10 of 20 ( Start time: 07:47:59 PM ) Total Marks: 1 What type of sample involves some form of random selection so that every member of the sampling frame has an equal, non-zero chance of being included in the sample? Select correct option: Probability sample Zero-bias sample All-inclusive sample Non-probability sample Question # 9 of 20 ( Start time: 07:47:39 PM ) Total Marks: 1 Research may differ along a series of dimensions. Which of the following may be applied to this statement? Select correct option: The type of data collected. The data-collection technique. The level of manipulation used to elicit data collection. All of the given options Question # 8 of 20 ( Start time: 07:47:14 PM ) Total Marks: 1 Procedures determining what two issues are rarely used in quantitative research? Select correct option: Objectivity and subjectivity Reliability and validity Accessibility and replicability Quality and quantity Question # 7 of 20 ( Start time: 07:46:50 PM ) Total Marks: 1 Quantitative social researchers rarely claim to have established causality because: Select correct option: They are more concerned with publishing the results of their reliability tests. They do not believe that this is an appropriate goal to be striving for. They keep forgetting which of the variables they have manipulated. They tend to use cross-sectional designs, which produce only correlations. Question # 6 of 20 ( Start time: 07:46:23 PM ) Total Marks: 1 The independent variable is; Select correct option: The variable manipulated in order to observe its effects The variable that is measured The free spirited variable A confounding variable Question # 5 of 20 ( Start time: 07:45:43 PM ) Total Marks: 1 Which of the following is not an unethical issue? Select correct option: Invoicing irregularities Avoiding legal liability Misrepresenting results None of the given options Question # 4 of 20 ( Start time: 07:44:54 PM ) Total Marks: 1 All the persons involved in the collection of data and supervision of data collection process are called; Select correct option: Fieldworkers Researchers Research assistants None of the given options Question # 3 of 20 ( Start time: 07:43:28 PM ) Total Marks: 1 What is ordinal data? Select correct option: Ordinary data Well behaved data Ranked data Numbers Question # 2 of 20 ( Start time: 07:42:59 PM ) Total Marks: 1 Which of the following is an example of deception in business research? Select correct option: The obtaining of company material without permission. The researcher wearing a disguise during an observation. The researcher representing their research as being about a different topic. The researcher failing to ask permission to interview someone. Question # 1 of 20 ( Start time: 07:42:29 PM ) Total Marks: 1 Time consumed in mall intercept interview is---------------. Select correct option: High Moderate Low Nil
If a researcher is studying the effect of using laptops in his classroom to ascertain their merit and worth, he is likely conducting which type of research? Select correct option:
The extent to which we can generalize the results of a study to other participants is called: Select correct option:
To say that a theory is falsifiable is to say that; Select correct option:
Which of the following is least likely to occur as an ethical problem with e-research? Select correct option:
Question # 20 of 20 ( Start time: 01:35:18 AM ) Total Marks: 1 Which of the following is NOT an unethical issue? Select correct option: Invoicing irregularities Avoiding legal liability Misrepresenting results Seek approval for research Question # 19 of 20 ( Start time: 01:33:59 AM ) Total Marks: 1 Which of the following is NOT a type of Non-random sampling? Select correct option: Cluster sampling Convenience sampling Quota sampling Purposive sampling Question # 18 of 20 ( Start time: 01:32:38 AM ) Total Marks: 1 Which one of the following is not an assumption of science? Select correct option: There are reoccurring patterns in the world. Events happen because of preceding causes. We can discover solutions to problems of interest. Theoretical explanations must agree with common sense. Question # 17 of 20 ( Start time: 01:32:14 AM ) Total Marks: 1 After a researcher has stated the specific problem to be studied in an experiment, he must then develop a(n): Select correct option: Theory Conclusion Hypothesis Summary of the data Question # 16 of 20 ( Start time: 01:31:34 AM ) Total Marks: 1 Which of the following is the best hypothesis statement to address the research question, "What impact will the new advertising campaign have on use of Brand B?" Select correct option: The new advertising campaign will impact Brand B usage. The new advertising campaign will increase Brand B trial. The new advertising campaign will cause increased Brand B usage at the expense of Brand C. The new advertising campaign will increase Brand B's market penetration. Question # 15 of 20 ( Start time: 01:30:13 AM ) Total Marks: 1 A one tailed hypothesis predicts----------- Select correct option: The future The lottery result The frequency of the effect The direction of the effect Setting quotas for hard-to-reach respondents is one way to minimize _______ bias. Select correct option: Interviewer Respondent Instrument Sampling Question # 13 of 20 ( Start time: 01:27:29 AM ) Total Marks: 1 The organization of concepts in sequence from the most concrete and individual to the most general indicates is: Select correct option: One that bears no relation to the underlying concept. An abstract, theoretical definition of a concept. The degree of abstraction An operational definition Question # 12 of 20 ( Start time: 01:26:04 AM ) Total Marks: 1 What is the purpose of a control *****? Select correct option: Make the experiment easier to analyze Show the value of the dependent variable when the independent variable is not being manipulated To be able to better evaluate the effect of the independent variable To control all variables Question # 11 of 20 ( Start time: 01:24:42 AM ) Total Marks: 1 A measure has high internal consistency reliability when: Select correct option: Multiple observers make the same ratings using the measure. Participants score at the high end of the scale every time they complete the measure. Multiple observers obtain the same score every time they use the measure. Each of the items correlates with other items on the measure. Question # 10 of 20 ( Start time: 01:24:22 AM ) Total Marks: 1 The purpose of a literature review is to: Select correct option: Help you find out what is already known about this area. Identify any inconsistencies or gaps in the literature. Demonstrate an awareness of the theoretical context in which the current study can be located. Find what is already known, identify gaps demonstrate awareness. Question # 9 of 20 ( Start time: 01:23:17 AM ) Total Marks: 1 The extent to which we can generalize the results of a study to other participants is called: Select correct option: Sampling validity External validity Construct validity Internal validity Question # 8 of 20 ( Start time: 01:21:56 AM ) Total Marks: 1 Why, as scientists, do we not want to rely on authority for explanations? Select correct option: Those in authority are often wrong. Those in authority cannot be challenged. Those in authority rely too much on objective information. Those in authority often have no common sense. A ________ scale only assigns numbers to objects to classify the objects according to the characteristic of interest. Select correct option: Ratio Nominal Interval Dichotomous Question # 6 of 20 ( Start time: 01:20:06 AM ) Total Marks: 1 You wish to make a precise estimate about the characteristics of a population of individuals. You should use: Select correct option: Quota sampling Probability sampling Accidental sampling Snowball sampling Question # 5 of 20 ( Start time: 01:19:35 AM ) Total Marks: 1 Conditions favoring the use of a sample over a census include a: Select correct option: Long time frame Small budget High cost of sampling errors Low cost of non-sampling errors Question # 4 of 20 ( Start time: 01:18:15 AM ) Total Marks: 1 A variable is: Select correct option: Any characteristic of interest that can take on more than one value Defined as the groups manipulated in experimental research The complete set of scores we use in statistical analysis Completely specified only in observational research Question # 3 of 20 ( Start time: 01:17:40 AM ) Total Marks: 1 In the statement 'an examination of the effects of discretionary behaviour on employee performance' employee performance is the: Select correct option: Independent variable Dependent variable Extraneous variable Causal variable Question # 2 of 20 ( Start time: 01:16:41 AM ) Total Marks: 1 Which of the following issues should NOT be mentioned in an introductory statement? Select correct option: The information will be kept confidential What the findings of the research are? Who is funding the research? Why the respondent has been chosen? Question # 1 of 20 ( Start time: 01:15:16 AM ) Total Marks: 1 Which measure of dispersion is easiest to calculate? Standard deviation? Select correct option: Mean Range Median Mode Quiz Start Time: Quiz Start Time: Question # 1 of 20 ( Start time: 01:57:02 PM ) Total Marks: 1 Which of the following is not example of historical comparative research? Select correct option: Social Forms Turnover Civil Wars Economic Forms Question # 2 of 20 ( Start time: 01:58:24 PM ) Total Marks: 1 What is ordinal data? Select correct option: Ordinary data Well behaved data Ranked data Numbers Question # 3 of 20 ( Start time: 01:59:57 PM ) Total Marks: 1 Which of the following number of variables involved in Descriptive Statistics? Select correct option: Bivariate Multivariate Univariate All of the given options Question # 4 of 20 ( Start time: 02:00:34 PM ) Total Marks: 1 If a nominal scale is used, it is permissible to calculate which of the following statistics? Select correct option: Mean Range Percentile Mode Question # 5 of 20 ( Start time: 02:02:04 PM ) Total Marks: 1 A literature review requires; Select correct option: planning clear writing good writing All of the given option Question # 6 of 20 ( Start time: 02:03:26 PM ) Total Marks: 1 How can we determine if a test has good validity? Select correct option: It produces the same result when it is given at different times to the same ***** of people It produces the same result no matter which version of the test is used It measures what it is supposed to measure All of the questions on it can be answered accurately by the subject Question # 7 of 20 ( Start time: 02:04:46 PM ) Total Marks: 1 Which of the following steps of the scientific method is exemplified by the researcher reviewing the literature and focusing on a specific problem that has yet to be resolved? Select correct option: Identify a topic. Describe the procedures to collect information. Analyze the collected information. State the results of the data analysis. Question # 8 of 20 ( Start time: 02:06:15 PM ) Total Marks: 1 Which of the following terms refers to a statistical method that can be used to statistically equate groups on a pretest or some other variable? Select correct option: Experimental control Differential influence Matching Analysis of covariance Question # 9 of 20 ( Start time: 02:07:40 PM ) Total Marks: 1 Which of the following would NOT NECESSARILY be an assigned variable? Select correct option: Self-concept Participation in extracurricular activities Attitude toward school Father's level of education Question # 10 of 20 ( Start time: 02:08:57 PM ) Total Marks: 1 _________ meanings attached to a concept create problems of measurements. Select correct option: Unambiguous Vague Clear Dictionary Question # 11 of 20 ( Start time: 02:09:59 PM ) Total Marks: 1 When doing research involving deception with human subjects, researchers have an obligation to do which of the following? Select correct option: Tell subjects the truth about the study’s purpose and methods after the study is completed Prevent mental and physical harm to subjects Let subjects withdraw from the study at any time if they don’t want to keep participating All of the given options Question # 12 of 20 ( Start time: 02:11:19 PM ) Total Marks: 1 How is nominal data presented? Select correct option: In order In discrete categories Units of equal distance Data where there is a true zero Question # 13 of 20 ( Start time: 02:12:44 PM ) Total Marks: 1 Preliminary Data Collection may be considered as part of ----------------. Select correct option: Descriptive research Explananory research Exploratory research All of the given options Question # 14 of 20 ( Start time: 02:13:33 PM ) Total Marks: 1 What type of process research is? Select correct option: A process to discover the truth A process to invent the machines A process to make new medicines A process to create theories Question # 15 of 20 ( Start time: 02:15:01 PM ) Total Marks: 1 The findings from a study of decision making processes within a UK financial services company can be generalized to: Select correct option: Decision making processes in all financial services companies Decision making processes in the all UK companies Decision making processes in the researched companies Companies all over the world Question # 16 of 20 ( Start time: 02:16:31 PM ) Total Marks: 1 Which of the following refers to the partials replicate or reproduce the same relationship that existed in the bivariate table before considering the control variable? Select correct option: Replication pattern Specification pattern Suppressor variable pattern Negative linear relationship Question # 17 of 20 ( Start time: 02:17:36 PM ) Total Marks: 1 Which of the following is a measure in which a researcher adds or combines several distinct indicators of a construct into a single score? Select correct option: Scale Index Unidimensionality Weighting Question # 18 of 20 ( Start time: 02:19:04 PM ) Total Marks: 1 What is the main purpose of pilot testing? Select correct option: To accumulate responses To identify respondent To identify potential problems To evaluate the research Question # 19 of 20 ( Start time: 02:20:30 PM ) Total Marks: 1 Why might qualitative researchers regard interviewing an attractive alternative to participant observation? Select correct option: It is easier to accommodate into the researchers personal life It reduces the problem of reactivity It is a considerably less time-consuming process It gives a better insight into the day to day functioning of the research site Question # 20 of 20 ( Start time: 02:22:01 PM ) Total Marks: 1 Which measure of dispersion is easiest to calculate? Standard deviation? Select correct option: Mean Range Median Mode 1. A researcher was interested in studying why the "new math" of the 1960s failed. She interviews several teachers who used the new math during the 1960s. These teachers are considered: a. Primary sources b. Secondary Sources c. External critics d. Internal critics 2. The process of dealing with concerns over the authenticity of a source is referred to as: a. Sourcing b. Internal criticism c. Secondary criticism d. External criticism 3. A researcher studying the history of medical education finds a manuscript that purports to be from the 14th century. Before he uses the source, he goes to three other experts who help him identify whether the manuscript is authentic or not. His authentification of the object is referred to as: a. Positive criticism b. Internal criticism c. Secondary criticism d. External criticism 4. A historical researcher studying the implementation of the "new math" during the 1960s uses as a source a text written on the subject by a critic who was a mathematics teacher during that time period. As she examines the document, she discovers that the data that the individual based his or her conclusions on was falsified. Hence, the conclusions drawn were erroneous. Her analysis of the document to check its accuracy is referred to as: a. Positive criticism b. Internal criticism c. External criticism d. Secondary criticism 5. A researcher is interested in studying approaches to teaching writing in schools during the 1800s. She discovers a grammar book, but there is no author or copyright date in the book. She examines the typeface in the book as well as the writing style. After investigating further, she finds a reference to the book from a teacher's diary from the 1800s. The diary also mentions an author's name. After further searching around she is able to identify the author of the book. The investigator was engaged in what process? a. Sourcing b. Positive criticism c. Presentism d. Axial coding6. Historical research is conducted for which of the following reasons? 6. Historical research is conducted for which of the following reasons? a. To identify the relationship that the past has to the present b. To evaluate and record accomplishments of individuals or entities c. To enhance understanding of the culture in which we live d. To uncover the unknown e. All of the above 7. Historical research is interpretative. a. True b. False 8. The following is a step in the process of historical research? a. Preparing a report or narrative exposition b. Identifying a research topic and formulation of the research problem or question c. Data synthesis d. Data collection and/or literature review e. All of the above 9. Oral histories can be based on ______. a. Interviews with people b. Stories and tales c. Songs d. All of the above 10. In historical research, a primary source _________. a. Consists of first hand accounts by witnesses to events b. Can consist of sources that include original maps, diaries, transcripts of the minutes of a meeting, and photographs c. Both a and b 11. In historical research secondary sources are _________. a. Generally considered more useful that primary sources b. Generally considered less useful than primary sources 12. In evaluating historical research sources, external criticism ________. a. Can involve the use of carbon dating and handwriting experts b. Helps determine the validity, trustworthiness or authenticity of a source c. Can involve use of historical linguists' knowledgeable with the writing style of the period d. All of the above 13. Contextualization refers to the process of identifying when and where an event took place. a. True b. False 14. The process of determining the reliability or accuracy of the information contained in the sources collected is known as ______. a. External criticism b. Internal criticism c. Vagueness d. Presentism 15. Presentism in historical sources ________. a. Is the presence of the author in a historical source b. Is a first-hand accounts of events c. Is the assumption that the present-day connotations of terms also existed in the past d. Is the assumption that the past influences the present 16. "Comparing document to each other to determine whether they provide the same information or reach the same conclusion" is known as ________. a. Contextualization b. Sourcing c. Corroboration d. Negative criticism 17. The "identification of when and where an event took place" is known as _____. a. Contextualization b. Sourcing c. Corroboration d. Negative criticism 18. Three heuristics suggested by Wineburg (1991) for evaluating documents are: a. Corroboration, sourcing, and contextualization b. Sourcing, internal criticism, and external criticism c. Corroboration, internal criticism and external criticism d. Contextualization, corroboration and presentism 19. In historical research, data synthesis usually does not include ______. a. Defining and interpreting key words, phrases and terms b. Chronologically ordering events c. Differentiating between how people should behave and how they did behave d. Inferring causation based on simple correlation e. Maintaining a distinction between intent and consequences 20. When writing their narratives, many historical researchers prefer to use _____. a. The Publication Manual of the American Psychological Association (1994) b. The Chicago Manual of Style c. The Historical Manual of Style d. The Historian's Manual of Style Under which of the following research method is not applicable? Select correct option: Health care Business Government offices Imaginary worlds If a researcher was studying the use of various instructional approaches to the "multiple intelligences" of his students, he is likely to be conducting which type of research? Select correct option: Basic Applied Evaluation Grounded theory All of the following are true about theories, except; Select correct option: They organize and summarize existing knowledge about a topic. They are tentative until the facts prove them true. They provide possible explanations for the phenomenon under study. They lead to testable hypotheses through the process of deduction. A good qualitative problem statement: Select correct option: Defines the independent and dependent variables Conveys a sense of emerging design Specifies a research hypothesis to be tested Specifies the relationship between variables that the researcher expects to find. _______ meanings attached to a concept create problems of measurements. Select correct option: Unambiguous Vague Clear Dictionary Which of the following is a measure in which the researcher captures the intensity, direction, level, or potency of a variable construct? Select correct option: Scale Index Unidimensionality Weighting Which of the following is the process of marking segments of data with symbols, descriptive words or category? Select correct option: Concurring Coding Coloring Segmenting Which type of sampling strategy is exemplified by selecting two types of individuals: those who are extremely happy and those who are extremely sad? Select correct option: Snowball Intensity Homogeneous Purposive What is the final step of a scientific investigation? Select correct option: Analyze data Collect data Report the findings Determine whether the hypothesis was supported Ms. Tania is thinking about changing her instructional approach to a more mastery-learning orientation. She is interested in knowing more about this topic as well as its effectiveness when working with elementary school students. On which source should she rely for such information? Select correct option: Tradition Research Intuition Personal experience What is the main purpose of pilot testing? Select correct option: To accumulate responses To identify respondent To identify potential problems To evaluate the research The extent to which we can generalize the results of a study to other participants is called: Select correct option: Sampling validity External validity Construct validity Internal validity What type of the interview that is in which questions are already prepared? Select correct option: Telephonic interview Personal interview Unstructured interview structured interview Historians organize evidence usually in which of the following form? Select correct option: Comparative form Critical form Logical form Narrative form Which of the following steps of the scientific method is exemplified by the researcher reviewing the literature and focusing on a specific problem that has yet to be resolved? Select correct option: Identify a topic. Describe the procedures to collect information. Analyze the collected information. State the results of the data analysis. Which of the following control techniques available to the researcher controls for both known and unknown variables? Select correct option: Building the extraneous variable into the design Matching Random assignment Analysis of covariance Surveys are more impersonal than face-to-face interviews. Select correct option: Recorded Interview Focus ***** Telephone Which of the table is based on cross-tabulation and the cases are organized in the table on the basis of two variables at the same time? Select correct option: Bivariate Tables Frequency Distribution Table SPSS Table MINITAB Table Which of the following is a measure in which a researcher adds or combines several distinct indicators of a construct into a single score? Select correct option: Scale Index Unidimensionality Weighting The following journal article would be an example of _____ research; "The benefits of florescent lighting on production in a factory setting." Select correct option: Applied (douted) Interview Basic Stupid Which measure of dispersion is easiest to calculate? Standard deviation? Select correct option: Mean Range Median Mode What is opposite of a variable? Select correct option: A constant An extraneous variable A dependent variable A data set A ______ scale only assigns numbers to objects to classify the objects according to the characteristic of interest. Select correct option: Ratio Nominal Interval Dichotomous Statistics are used by researchers to: Select correct option: Analyze the empirical data collected in a study Make their findings sound better Operationally define their variables Ensure the study comes out the way it was intended An indicator of reliability based on the correlations of each item in a measure with every other item is called: Select correct option: Test-retest reliability Cronbach's alpha Split-half reliability Inter item ratio How is nominal data presented? Select correct option: In order In discrete categories Units of equal distance Data where there is a true zero What is the main purpose of pilot testing? Select correct option: To accumulate responses To identify respondent To identify potential problems To evaluate the research Which of the following should not be a consideration in writing a proposal? Select correct option: Understanding the problem situation The appearance/form of the proposal Responding to every element exactly as specified by the client Knowing as much as possible about the proposal recipients Which term technically describes a situation in which an observer's work in a first-grade classroom disrupts the normal routines due to the curiosity of the students? Select correct option: Observer effect Participant effect Non participant bias Observer bias A telephone company is interested in obtaining customers' reactions to a new service package. Which of the following primary research methods would be most effective in reaching this audience to obtain their feedback? Select correct option: An Internet survey Telephone interviews A mail survey Focus groups Which of the following is more operational with the help of coding system? Select correct option: External Appearance Count Behaviors Time Duration Content analysis Rationalism is the application of: Select correct option: Research solution Logic and arguments Reasoning Previous findings If a researcher is studying the effect of using laptops in his classroom to ascertain their merit and worth, he is likely conducting which type of research? Select correct option: Basic Applied Evaluation Experimental Research may differ along a series of dimensions. Which of the following may be applied to this statement? Select correct option: The type of data collected. The data-collection technique. The level of manipulation used to elicit data collection. All of the given options Which one of the following tasks is NOT accomplished by theoretical framework? Select correct option: Elaborate the relationship among the variables Explain the logic underlying the relationship between the variables. Describe the nature, and direction of the relationships among the variables. Relates the previous studies. What is required if there is a chance that data could harm the respondents? Select correct option: Change of results A signed form detailing the types of limits Free consent of respondents All of the given options Which of the following is NOT an unethical issue? Select correct option: Invoicing irregularities Avoiding legal liability Misrepresenting results Seek approval for research When a variable is so closely associated with the independent variable that we do not know which one is producing the experimental effect, the variable is: Select correct option: Manipulated Confounded Unspecified Uncontrolled Which of the following is not an example of deception? Select correct option: A part of the truth is not communicated to the respondent To observe code of ethics (douted) To leak out information regarding any confidential matter To create bias between respondents before the survey Question The logic of purposive sampling is: Select correct option: 1. That a random sample can generalize to a population. 2. That a few information-rich participants studied in depth yield many insights about a topic. 3. To include all participants, even though they are not all relevant to the problem. 4. To use participants because the researcher has access to them. Question An indicator of reliability based on the correlations of each item in a measure with every other item is called: Select correct option: 1. Test-retest reliability 2. Cronbach's alpha 3. Split-half reliability 4. Inter item ratio Question Why does qualitative interviewing have an advantage over participant observation when it comes to longitudinal research? Select correct option: 1. Repeat interviews are easier to organise. 2. It allows for a better exploration of key issues. 3. It is a more focused research method. 4. Participant observers are prone to 'go native' during longitudinal research. Question # An operational definition is: Select correct option: 1. One that bears no relation to the underlying concept. 2. An abstract, theoretical definition of a concept. 3. A definition of a concept in terms of specific, empirical measures. 4. One that refers to opera singers and their work. Question To say that a theory is falsifiable is to say that; Select correct option: 1. It is based on results that are not replicable. 2. Investigators have replaced it with a simpler or more accurate theory. 3. We can imagine results that would contradict it. 4. It is so vague that it fits any and all possible results. Question Which type of research address major societal change? Select correct option: 1. Experimental Research 2. Action Research 3. Social Research 4. Historical Comparative Research Question Which term technically describes a situation in which an observer's work in a first-grade classroom disrupts the normal routines due to the curiosity of the students? Select correct option: 1. Observer effect 2. Participant effect 3. Non participant bias 4. Observer bias Question What is the variable called, in an experiment, which is manipulated by the researcher? Select correct option: 1. Stimulus 2. Control 3. Dependent 4. Independent Question If a measure is consistent over multiple occasions, it has: Select correct option: 1. Inter-rater reliability 2. Construct validity 3. Internal validity 4. Test-retest reliability Question Bias is defined as; Select correct option: 1. The distortion of responses based on gender, ethnicity, race, or language 2. A lack of validity 3. A lack of reliability 4. A poor interpretation of a student's score Question # In frequency tables total of columns and rows are called: Select correct option: 1. Body of table 2. Cell of table 3. Area of table 4. Marginal Question What type of the interview that is in which questions are already prepared? Select correct option: 1. Telephonic interview 2. Personal interview 3. Unstructured interview 4. Structured interview Question All of these are characteristics of scientific methods of research except, it is; Select correct option: 1. Cumulative 2. Deterministic 3. Unethical 4. Rationalism Question Which of the following is NOT an unethical issue? Select correct option: 1. Invoicing irregularities 2. Avoiding legal liability 3. Misrepresenting results 4. Seek approval for research Question Which of the following is not something a researcher will have to consider when thinking about their sample size? Select correct option: from VUsolutions 1. Time and cost. 2. Non-response. 3. Length of questionnaire. 4. Heterogeneity of population. Question A ________ scale only assigns numbers to objects to classify the objects according to the characteristic of interest. Select correct option: 1. Ratio 2. Nominal 3. Interval 4. Dichotomous Question The logic of qualitative data analysis is described as: Select correct option: 1. Objective 2. Subjective 3. Inductive 4. Deductive Question Which of the following is the best hypothesis statement to address the research question, "What impact will the new advertising campaign have on use of Brand B?" Select correct option: 1. The new advertising campaign will impact Brand B usage. 2. The new advertising campaign will increase Brand B trial. 3. The new advertising campaign will cause increased Brand B usage at the expense of Brand C. 4. The new advertising campaign will increase Brand B's market penetration. Question Detailed and unambiguous instructions are particularly important for: Select correct option: 1. Computer-assisted telephone surveys 2. Mail surveys 3. Computer-assisted personal interviews 4. Internet surveys Question Which of the following terms best describes data that were originally collected at an earlier time by a different person for a different purpose? Select correct option: 1. Primary data 2. Secondary data 3. Experimental data 4. 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